Showing posts with label FPSC Jobs. Show all posts
Showing posts with label FPSC Jobs. Show all posts

Sunday, October 6, 2024

FPSC Jobs Inspector Customs/ Intelligence Officer FBR Jobs Test MCQs Written Syllabus Past Papers PDF

Federal Public Service Commission FPSC Advertisement No. 10/2024 Jobs

FPSC Jobs Inspector Customs/ Intelligence Officer FBR Jobs Test MCQs Written Syllabus Past Papers PDF
Vacancy Positions:

  • Inspector Customs/ Intelligence Officer (BS-16) = 09 Posts

Minimum Qualification: Second Class or Grade ‘C’ Bachelor’s Degree from a recognized university with Economics, Commerce, Statistics, Accounting, Computer Science, Law, Pharmacy, Chemistry or Physics as one of the subjects or B.Sc Engineering in any specialty. Computer literacy up to the level of MS Word, MS Power Point and MS Excel. 

Minimum Physical Standard: for male candidates: Height 5’-6” Chest 32’-33.5” for female Candidates: height 5’-2” Documentary proof from Civil Surgeon, Associate Physician or Assistant Surgeon of Government Hospitals as defined in the Federal Services Medical Attendance Rules, 1990, required. The certificate must reflect name of the authorized medical attendant with stamp showing exact designation.

Age limit: 20-28 years plus 05 years general relaxation in upper age limit. 

Number of Vacancies: 09 (Nine)

Place of Posting: Anywhere in Pakistan.

Note: At fist stage MCQs Screening Test shall be held, then on the basis of its result top merit position holders @ ten candidates per vacancy from respective quotas would be called for Descriptive Test.

Application Closing Deadline 21-10-2024.

Top MCQs Test with answers for the position of Inspector Customs/ Intelligence Officer in the Federal Board of Revenue (FBR)

General Knowledge

Of the following, which one is the largest export sector of Pakistan?

 

A) Agriculture

B) Textile and Garments

C) Information Technology

D) Pharmaceuticals

Answer: B) Textile and Garments

Indus River flows through which two provinces of Pakistan?

 

A) Punjab and Sindh

B) Balochistan and Khyber Pakhtunkhwa

C) Sindh and Khyber Pakhtunkhwa

D) Punjab and Balochistan

Answer: A) Punjab and Sindh

Federal Investigation Agency of Pakistan was established in the year

 

A) 1947

B) 1975

C) 1990

D) 2001

Answer: B) 1975

Who is the head of the WTO now?

 

A) Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala

B) Christine Lagarde

C) David Malpass

D) Antonio Guterres

Answer: A) Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala

Which country initially suggested and branded the "One Belt, One Road" (OBOR) initiative also known as the Belt and Road Initiative?

 

A) Russia

B) Japan

C) United States

D) China

Answer: D) China

Customs Laws & Regulations

Under Pakistan's Customs Act, 1969, customs officers are empowered to take into custody the goods, if they suspect that the goods are used in:

A) Smuggling

B) Over-invoicing

C) Under-invoicing

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

What is Form GD?

A) Filing a declaration for imported goods to Pakistan

B) Issuance of permit

C) Entry for export

D) Application for refund

Answer: A) Filing a declaration for imported goods to Pakistan

The Pakistan Customs Act provides for imposition of penalties on an importer who tries to import prohibited goods. What is the common penalty for the first offence?

 

A) Fine only

B) Confiscation of goods and fine

C) Imprisonment only

D) Warning

Answer: B) Confiscation of goods and fine

What is the primary function of Pakistan's Federal Board of Revenue (FBR) concerning imports?

 

A) Administration of export subsidies

B) Collecting import duties and enforcing customs regulations

C) Maintaining quality control of imports

D) Supervising home commerce

Answer: B) Collecting import duties and enforcing customs regulations

Under customs law, a "bill of entry" is:

A) Document presented for exported products only

B) Declaration made by an importer of goods

C) Used only for restricted products

D) All the above

Answer: B) A statement by an importer that the imported goods exist

Principles of Intelligence and Investigation

In intelligence activities, the word "counterintelligence" refers to:

 

A) Information collection concerning other nations

B) Preventing espionage of a foreign power in one's country

C) Treaties and agreements with other nations

D) Collection of information on crime perpetrators

Answer: B) Preventing espionage of a foreign power in one's country

The principle of "Need to Know" when exchanging intelligence suggests that:

Information is exchanged only

 

A) With everyone in the organization

B) Only with people who need it for job performance

C) With every allied agency

D) With the general public for openness

Answer: B) Only with people who need it to get their job done

A covert agent is often termed a:

A) Secret informant

B) Sleeper

C) Asset

D) Spy

Answer: C) Asset

CCTV is what

A) Covert communications Television

B) Closed-circuit television

C) Constant check tracking Video

D) Controlled crime Tracking video

B) Closed-Circuit Television

In the intelligence arena, HUMINT represents:

 

A) Human Intelligence

B) Hazardous Undercover Mission Intelligence Network

C) Highly Unpredictable Military Intelligence Net

D) Hostile Unit Management Interface

Answer: A) Human Intelligence

Knowledge about Pakistani Laws and Jurisprudence

In Pakistan, which one of the following was used to institute the National Accountability Bureau?

 

A) Anti-Terrorism Act, 1997

B) Accountability Ordinance, 1999

C) Pakistan Penal Code

D) National Crime Ordinance

Answer: B) Accountability Ordinance, 1999

Under Pakistan's constitution, the maximum period of preventive detention without a court's approval is:

 

A) 24 hours

B) 3 days

C) 15 days

D) 90 days

Answer: D) 90 days

The Supreme Court of Pakistan is situated in which city?

 

A) Karachi

B) Lahore

C) Islamabad

D) Rawalpindi

Answer: C) Islamabad

Pakistani customs officers can, under the law, enter premises without a warrant when they have reason to suspect:

 

A) Smuggling activity

B) A violation of import/export restrictions

C) Non-payment of customs duty

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

Which article of the Pakistani constitution guarantees the freedom of speech and expression?

 

A) Article 19

B) Article 25

C) Article 17

D) Article 22

Answer: A) Article 19

FPSC Jobs Assistant Engineer (E&M) Military Engineering Services MES Jobs Test MCQs Written Syllabus Past Papers PDF

Federal Public Service Commission FPSC Advertisement No. 10/2024

FPSC Jobs Assistant Engineer (E&M) Military Engineering Services MES Jobs Test MCQs Written Syllabus Past Papers PDF
Vacancy Positions:

  • Assistant Engineer (E&M) (BS-16) = 19 Posts

Minimum Qualification: Second Class or Grade ‘C’ Bachelor’s (04 years duration) Degree in Engineering (Electrical/ Mechanical) / B.Tech (Hons) (Electrical/ Mechanical) or equivalent qualification from a university recognized by the HEC.

Number of Vacancies: 19

Age limit: 20-28 years plus 5 years general relaxation in upper age limit.

Place of Posting: Anywhere in Pakistan

Online Application Closing Date: 21-10-2024. 

Top Jobs Test MCQs with answers for the position of Assistant Engineer (E&M) in Military Engineering Services (MES)

1. Principles of Electrical and Mechanical Engineering

Q1: What type of motor is used with hoists and cranes? Why?

Answer: DC Series Motor; it provides the required high starting torque, especially in lifting heavy weight loads.

Q2: The frequency of an AC supply is reduced to one-half its original value in an AC circuit.

Answer: The inductive reactance decreases, and if the circuit is the same, the current will also increase.

Q3: What is the purpose of a circuit breaker in an electrical distribution system?

Answer: It breaks off the current flow at a fault or overload condition for the protection of the circuit.

Q4: How does a star-delta starter reduce induction motor starting current?

Answer: The motor connections are set up in a star for a reduction in the voltages and, when in the running condition, are switched over to delta. Hence, it lowers the initial current.

3. Services of Buildings along with the HVAC Systems

Q5: Why a closed loop HVAC system necessarily requires expansion tank?

Answer: The expansion of the water upon heating should not be excessively high to let the system get destroyed so an expansion tank is placed to provide balance to water expansion.

Q6: Which of the following is the most commonly used sensor type in modern HVAC systems for indoor air quality control?

Answer: Carbon dioxide sensors; they help in the indoor air quality control through monitoring CO₂ levels and adjusting ventilation rates according to them.

4. Control Systems and Instrumentation

Q7: What is the purpose of a PID controller in an automation system?

A: The PID controller uses Proportional, Integral, and Derivative to control the desired setpoint of a process by minimizing errors with time by appropriate alterations in control output.

Q8: Why pressure transducers are used in hydraulic system?

A: Pressure monitoring and measurement inside hydraulic system for safety and operation control

5. Maintenance and Safety Procedure

Q9: Proper procedure of safe release of high voltage capacitor before maintenance:

Q10: Why lockout/tagout?

Why is it necessary for a person doing industrial maintenance work to follow lockout/tagout procedure?

Because during the procedure, the equipment shut off must be in proper order so that once started, the work will be finished without accidental energizing the equipment. Thus safety comes to the workers.

Q11: Why does the military prefer diesel generators more than gasoline generators in field deployments?

Answer: Because diesel generators are more efficient and have a longer service life under heavy loads as compared to gasoline generators; they meet the rugged requirement of military operations.

Q12: What are some issues to be considered in establishing an electrical supply system design of a remote military installation?

Answer: Reliability, maintainability, fuel availability, and robustness with regard to environmental challenges represent significant factors to ensure non-interrupted operation.

7. Real-World Problem-Solving Scenarios

Q13: For instance, for a three-phase induction motor that trips once every time it is turned on under load, likely causes?

Answer: Overload, voltage imbalance, wrong settings of protection relays or mechanical faults like bearing faults.

Q14: What is the sequence of power-up in emergency restoration of power for a military base?

Answer: Critical communication systems, medical facilities, security systems, and then non-critical loads, as required and on priority.

8. Electrical Design and Load Calculations

Q15: Which of the following factors is to be considered in sizing transformers in a new facility?

Answer: Load demand, future expansion, power quality, and efficiency requirements are the basic criteria through which the transformer can be able to meet the existing and future requirements.

Q16: What is the effect of power factor on the generator size?

Answer: Apparent power drawn increases by a low power factor. Thus, in order to meet the increased demand of current, a bigger generator has to be supplied for.

Monday, September 30, 2024

Download Computer Science MCQs PDF Solved Must Prepare Now

Computer Science-based multiple-choice questions with PDF solutions. Multiple-choice questions on computer science and information technology (IT) for the 2024 PPSC FPSC KPPSC OTS NTS employment exam preparation.

Download Computer Science MCQs PDF Solved Must Prepare Now

Computer Multiple Choice Questions in PDF

Download the PDF with the MCQs and answers for computer science. 

Computer Science MCQs Papers Solved Download PDF

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Saturday, September 28, 2024

English MCQs

English Mcqs for Preparation PPSC, FPSC, NTS, SPSC, KPPSC, and other test. here you will find English mcqs.

English MCQs

In their first debate, Kamala gets under Trump’s skin. Here “get under someone’s skin” means:

A. Irritate or upset someone
B. Do it with a lot of force and energy
C. To meet and spend time with someone
D. Say or do something that someone should not have

Take something with a pinch of salt”, means: 

A. Without wholly believing
B. Eat with some extra salt
C. Eat without salt
D. Believe something completely

Qureshi accuses prosecution of dilly-dallying. Here the word ‘dilly-dallying’ means: 

A. Wasting time by being indecisive
B. Becoming hasty in decision making
C. Not cooperating with council
D. Not respecting because of political interference

What is the meaning of the idiom “Spill the beans”? 

A. To make a mess
B. To reveal a secret
C. To tell a lie
D. To start a fight

Be quids in, means:

A. To be making a profit
B. To suffer loss
C. To be in a situation
D. To be a part of a group

The new TV series from the West Wing team is ready to roll. Here idiom ‘ready to roll’ means:

A. Near to be finished
B. Start to be ruined
C. Going to start soon
D. Ready to leave soon

Be pushing up the daisies, means: 

A. Live for a long time
B. To be dead
C. Try hard for success
D. Trying something irrelevant

Follow hot on the heels of, means: 

A. Happen very slowly
B. Happen very soon
C. Happen in hidden manner
D. Happen slow and secretly

I _________ to Islamabad with some friends last night. 

A. have gone
B. went
C. am gone
D. am going

She was sitting ________her mother.

A. Beside
B. Along
C. Across

D. None of These 

Wednesday, September 25, 2024

Download Everyday Science Jobs Test MCQs PDF for PPSC FPSC NTS OTS

Saturday, September 21, 2024

Download General Knowledge Jobs Test MCQs PDF GK Questions

General knowledge MCQs solved questions with answers in PDF. World general knowledge (GK) multiple choice questions for 2024 PPSC FPSC NTS OTS ETEA jobs tests preparation.

Download General Knowledge Jobs Test MCQs PDF GK Questions

General Knowledge Jobs Test MCQs PDF

Download general knowledge (GK) MCQs questions and answers in PDF.

Thursday, September 19, 2024

Agriculture Officer Jobs MCQs Test Papers PPSC FPSC NTS OTS Must Prepare Now

Agriculture Officer Jobs MCQs Test with Answers

Agriculture Officer Jobs MCQs Test with Answers

A mutation is a change in_________________?

A. Chromosome number

B. RNA
C. DNA
D. Chromosome structure

Which one of the following does not contain both DNA and RNA__________________?

A. Bacterium

B. Virus
C. Fungus
D. Algae

Common and easily available source of energy does not contain RNA__________________?

A. DNA
B. RNA
C. ATP
D. DNA/RNA 

The cell theory was propounded by____________________? 

A. Watson and Crick
B. Scheiiden and Schwann
C. Sarwin and Wallace
D. Morgan 

Liposome’s originated from____________________? 

A. Plastids
B. Ribosomes
C. Mitochondria
D. Leucoplasts 

Year 1900 was significant for geneticists due to__________________?

A. Discovery of gene
B. Principles of linkage
C. heredity theory
D. Rediscovery of Mendel’s

The geometrical device that helps in visnalizing all the possible combinations of male and female gametes known as____________________?

A. Punneu square
B. Morgan square
C. Mendel square
D. Bateson square 

All organism or cell having a chromosome number that is not an exact multiple of the monoploid or basic number is known as___________________?

A. Allopolyploid
B. Autopolyploid
C. Aneuploid
D. Euploid

Triticuin aestivuin is_________________? 

A. Triploid
B. Teuaplioid
C. Hexaploid
D. Oetaploid 

If diploid chromo me number in flowering plant is 8 then 4 chromosomes will be present in_________________? 

A. Endosperm cell
B. Leaf cells
C. Cotyledonary cell
D. Synergids 

When a cell with 40 chromosomes undergoes meiosis each of the four resulting cells has_____________________? 

A. 10 chromosomes
B. 20 chromosomes
C. 40 chromosomes

How many times mitotic divisions must occur in a cell of the root tip to form 256 cels___________________? 

A. 8
B. 32
C. 64
D. 120 

Meiosis is significant because___________________?

A. Produces identical cells
B. Restores original number of chromosomes
C. Occurs only in somatic
D. Doubling of DNA content in the cell

Ribosome’s are the centers of_____________________?

A. Fat synthesis
B. Starch synthesis
C. Protein synthesis
D. Anaerobic respiration

The parry of Cauliflower which is eaten is__________________? 

A. Flower
B. Fruit
C. Bud
D. Inflorescence 

Where would you look for active cell division in a plant _____________________?

A. Pith cells
B. Cortex cells
C. Internodes regions
D. Tips of stem & roots 

Red flower pea plant is crossed with the white flowered pea plant, F1 is red; with flower color is ______________________? 

A. Dominant
B. Recessive
C. Non-genetic
D. Unexpressive 

A healthy plant not selling seed may be due to____________________? 

A. Self incompatibility
B. Male sterility
C. Female sterility
D. All the above 

Rum is distilled from____________________? 

A. Unmalted potatoes
B. Fermented fruit juice
C. Unmalted cereals
D. Unrefined products of sugarcane

Edible part of orange is__________________? 

A. Unexcelled endocarp hair
B. Unicelled placenta hairs
C. Multicelled endocarpic hair
D. Multicelled placental hairs

Wednesday, September 18, 2024

Staff Nurse Nursing Jobs MCQs Test Papers PPSC FPSC NTS OTS Must Prepare Now

Staff Nurse Nursing Jobs MCQs with Answers

Staff Nurse Nursing Jobs MCQs Test Papers PPSC FPSC NTS OTS Must Prepare Now

Question1 : Infectious mononucleosis is caused by which of the following?

  1. Cytomegalovirus
  2. Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus
  3. Epstein-Barr virus
  4. Herpes simplex virus

Question 2 : The nurse is caring for a client who is thought to have pernicious anemia. What signs and symptoms would the nurse expect in this person?

  1. Easy bruising
  2. Beefy-red tongue
  3. Fine red rash on the extremities
  4. Pruritus

Question 3 : The nurse is to administer an IM injection to a 6-month-old child. What is the most appropriate site to use?

  1. Vastus lateralis
  2. Dorsal gluteal
  3. Ventral gluteal
  4. Iliac crest

Question 4 : The nurse administers iron using the Z track technique. What is the primary reason for administering iron via Z track?

  1. To prevent adverse reactions
  2. To prevent staining of the skin
  3. To improve the absorption rate
  4. To increase the speed of onset of action

Question 5 : The nurse is to administer a tuberculin skin test. What is the correct procedure?

  1. Give it subcutaneously in the inner aspect of the forearm.
  2. Use a 21-gauge needle and administer in the forearm.
  3. Give it at a 10-degree angle in the volar surface of the arm.
  4. Administer it intradermally in the upper arm.

Question 6 : Isolation of a child with measles belongs to what level of prevention?

  1. Primary
  2. Secondary
  3. Intermediate
  4. Tertiary

Question 7 : Which immunization produces a permanent scar?

  1. DPT
  2. BCG
  3. Measles vaccination
  4. Hepatitis B vaccination

Question 8 : Which of the following diseases is airborne?

  1. Viral conjunctivitis
  2. Acute poliomyelitis
  3. Diphtheria
  4. Measles

Question 9 : The pathognomonic sign of measles is Koplik’s spot. You may see Koplik’s spot by inspecting the:

  1. Nasal Mucosa
  2. Buccal mucosa
  3. Skin on the abdomen
  4. Skin on the antecubital surface

Question 10 : Which of the following conditions can cause a hiatal hernia?

  1. Increased intrathoracic pressure
  2. Weakness of the esophageal muscle
  3. Increased esophageal muscle pressure
  4. Weakness of the diaphragmatic muscle 

ANSWERS:

Question 1 : 3. The Epstein-Barr virus is the causative organism for infectious mononucleosis.

Question 2 : 2. A beefy-red tongue is characteristic of pernicious anemia. Easy bruising would be seen
in a clotting disorder such as hemophilia, in leukemia, or in bone marrow depression. Pruritus is characteristic of Hodgkin’s disease. Pernicious anemia does not present a fine, red rash on the
extremities.

Question 3 : 1. Infants and small children do not have enough muscle in the gluteal area to use that site. The vastus lateralis is the appropriate site. The iliac crest is a site used for SC injections, not IM.

Question 4 : 2. Iron is black and stains the skin. The Z track method of pulling the skin to one side before
injecting the medications prevents staining of the skin. It also reduces pain from the medication. It
does not prevent adverse reactions, improve the absorption rate, or increase the speed of onset of
action.

Question 5 : 3 A tuberculin skin test is given intradermally in the volar surface of the forearm. This answer is the correct procedure.

Question 6 : 1 Primary : The purpose of isolating a client with a communicable disease is to protect those who are not sick (specific disease prevention)..

Question 7 : 2 BCG : BCG causes the formation of a superficial abscess, which begins 2 weeks after immunization. The abscess heals without treatment, with the formation of a permanent scar.

Question 8 : 4 Measles

  • Viral conjunctivitis is transmitted by direct or indirect contact with discharges from infected eyes.
  • Acute poliomyelitis is spread through the fecal-oral route and contact with throat secretions.
  • Diphtheria is through direct and indirect contact with respiratory secretions.

Question 9 : 2 Buccal mucosa : Koplik’s spot may be seen on the mucosa of the mouth or the throat.

Question 10 : 4. Weakness of the diaphragmatic muscle

A hiatal hernia is caused by weakness of the diaphragmatic muscle and increased intra-abdominal—not intrathoracic—pressure. This weakness allows the stomach to slide into the esophagus. The esophageal supports weaken, but esophageal muscle weakness or increased esophageal muscle pressure isn’t a factor in hiatal hernia.

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