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Top 24 MCQs Solved Questions and Answers for the Post of Deputy Director Assistant Director Architecture WAPDA OTS 2024 Jobs Test MCQs Syllabus Papers

Sample of MCQs for Deputy Director Assistant Director Architecture WAPDA Test, focusing on architecture, management, and general knowledge:

1. Which architectural style is known for its use of flying buttresses and pointed arches?
   A) Gothic
   B) Romanesque
   C) Baroque
   D) Modernist
   Answer: A) Gothic
2. In architectural design, what is the primary purpose of a cantilever?
   A) To support an arch
   B) To create a projection without external bracing
   C) To connect two columns
   D) To enhance ventilation
   Answer: B) To create a projection without external bracing
3. Which of the following is a fundamental principle of sustainable architecture?
   A) Using non-renewable materials
   B) Maximizing energy efficiency
   C) Increasing building height
   D) Reducing green spaces
   Answer: B) Maximizing energy efficiency
4. What is the primary function of HVAC systems in buildings?
   A) Lighting
   B) Ventilation and air conditioning
   C) Plumbing
   D) Structural support
   Answer: B) Ventilation and air conditioning
5. The term “scale” in architecture refers to:
   A) The measurement of materials
   B) The proportion of a building in relation to its surroundings
   C) The weight of a structure
   D) The number of floors in a building
   Answer: B) The proportion of a building in relation to its surroundings

WAPDA-Specific MCQs:

6. WAPDA is responsible for managing which of the following resources in Pakistan?
   A) Transportation
   B) Water and Power
   C) Communication
   D) Oil and Gas
   Answer: B) Water and Power
7. In WAPDA, what does IPP stand for?
   A) International Power Project
   B) Independent Power Producer
   C) Industrial Power Producer
   D) Integrated Power Plan
   Answer: B) Independent Power Producer
8. Which of the following is a key challenge in the development of architectural projects for WAPDA?
   A) Budgeting for public buildings
   B) Sustainable water resource management
   C) Energy-efficient infrastructure
   D) All of the above
   Answer: D) All of the above

 Construction and Building Materials MCQs:

9. Which material is commonly used in reinforced concrete?
   A) Copper
   B) Steel
   C) Wood
   D) Plastic
   Answer: B) Steel
10. Which of the following is NOT a type of foundation used in buildings?
    A) Strip foundation
    B) Mat foundation
    C) Spire foundation
    D) Pile foundation
    Answer: C) Spire foundation
11. What is the purpose of insulation in a building?
    A) To improve structural strength
    B) To reduce heat transfer
    C) To provide natural light
    D) To prevent water leakage
    Answer: B) To reduce heat transfer

Building Codes and Standards MCQs:

12. What is the primary focus of building codes?
    A) Aesthetic appeal
    B) Public safety and health
    C) Real estate value
    D) Building height
    Answer: B) Public safety and health
13. In most modern building codes, what is the minimum width of a standard doorway in commercial buildings?
    A) 24 inches
    B) 32 inches
    C) 36 inches
    D) 40 inches
    Answer: C) 36 inches
14. What does LEED certification stand for in building standards?
    A) Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design
    B) Leading Energy Efficient Design
    C) Low Energy Environmental Development
    D) Licensed Engineers for Environmental Development
    Answer: A) Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design

Urban Planning and Zoning MCQs:

15. What is the main objective of zoning regulations?
    A) To control land use and development
    B) To determine building colors
    C) To manage water usage
    D) To allocate parking spaces
    Answer: A) To control land use and development
16. In urban planning, what does the term "mixed-use development" refer to?
    A) A single type of building material used
    B) A development combining residential, commercial, and industrial areas
    C) High-rise buildings only
    D) Industrial zones with no residential areas
    Answer: B) A development combining residential, commercial, and industrial areas
17. Which of the following is a benefit of green urban spaces in cities?
    A) Reducing pollution
    B) Enhancing mental well-being
    C) Promoting biodiversity
    D) All of the above
    Answer: D) All of the above

Project Management MCQs:

18. What is a critical path in project management?
    A) The longest sequence of activities that must be completed on time for the entire project to finish on schedule
    B) The shortest route between two project milestones
    C) The path taken by workers on-site
    D) The least expensive method of construction
    Answer: A) The longest sequence of activities that must be completed on time for the entire project to finish on schedule
19. What is a Gantt chart used for in project management?
    A) To calculate project costs
    B) To track project timelines and schedules
    C) To measure the height of buildings
    D) To evaluate design aesthetics
    Answer: B) To track project timelines and schedules
20. Which of the following is considered a soft skill crucial for effective project management?
    A) Time management
    B) Team communication
    C) Budgeting
    D) All of the above
    Answer: D) All of the above

General Knowledge MCQs:

21. What is the capital of Pakistan?
    A) Lahore
    B) Islamabad
    C) Karachi
    D) Peshawar
    Answer: B) Islamabad
22. Which river is the primary source of water for the WAPDA projects?
    A) Ravi
    B) Chenab
    C) Indus
    D) Jhelum
    Answer: C) Indus
23. Which country is known for its world-renowned architectural landmark, the Eiffel Tower?
    A) Italy
    B) Germany
    C) France
    D) Spain
    Answer: C) France
24. Who is considered the father of modern architecture?
    A) Frank Lloyd Wright
    B) Le Corbusier
    C) Antoni Gaudí
    D) Ludwig Mies van der Rohe
    Answer: B) Le Corbusier

Chief Commissioner Islamabad Capital Territory Jobs 2024 OTS Written Test MCQs Syllabus Paper

Vacancy Positions:

• H.V.C. (BPS-14)
• Steno Typist (BPS - 14)
• Assistant (BPS - 15)
• Lady Instructor (BPS-11)
• UDC (BPS- 11)
• Driver (BPS- 4)
• Naib Qasid (BPS- 1)
• Mali (BPS - 1)
• Sanitary Worker (BS-01) 

Everyday science MCQs solved questions with answers in PDF. Everyday general science multiple choice questions for 2024 PPSC FPSC NTS OTS jobs tests preparation.

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Everyday Science MCQs (PDF) 

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WAPDA Jobs Sep-2024 ASA Assistant Station Attendant Fireman Attendant Junior Technicians OTS Jobs Test MCQs Syllabus Papers 

OTS Jobs WAPDA Advertisement

WAPDA Jobs OTS MCQs Test Papers for positions of AssistantStation Attendant, Fireman, and Junior Technicians, questions and their answers:

Assistant Station Attendant Jobs Test MCQs:

1. What is the primary responsibility of an Assistant Station Attendant?
   A) Cleaning the station
   B) Assisting passengers
   C) Monitoring equipment
   D) Operating trains
   Answer: B) Assisting passengers
2. Which of the following is essential for passenger safety?
   A) Monitoring ticket counters
   B) Guiding passengers to exits
   C) Checking station lights
   D) All of the above
   Answer: D) All of the above
3. In case of an emergency, what should an Assistant Station Attendant do first?
   A) Call for backup
   B) Evacuate the station
   C) Inform the supervisor
   D) Take no action
   Answer: C) Inform the supervisor

Fireman Attendant Jobs Test MCQs:

4. Which equipment is essential for a Fireman Attendant to operate?
   A) Fire hose
   B) Ladder
   C) Water pump
   D) All of the above
   Answer: D) All of the above
5. What is the first step in fire safety during a blaze?
   A) Run for cover
   B) Alert the nearest authority
   C) Try to extinguish the fire
   D) Evacuate all personnel
   Answer: B) Alert the nearest authority
6. Which type of fire extinguisher is used for electrical fires?
   A) Water extinguisher
   B) Foam extinguisher
   C) CO2 extinguisher
   D) Powder extinguisher
   Answer: C) CO2 extinguisher

Junior Technician Jobs Test MCQs:

7. What is the unit of electrical resistance?
   A) Volt
   B) Ohm
   C) Watt
   D) Ampere
   Answer: B) Ohm
8. What does AC stand for in electrical terminology?
   A) Alternate Current
   B) Active Circuit
   C) Air Conditioning
   D) Analog Circuit
   Answer: A) Alternate Current
9. Which tool is commonly used to measure electrical voltage?
   A) Multimeter
   B) Oscilloscope
   C) Soldering iron
   D) Resistor
   Answer: A) Multimeter

General Knowledge Jobs Test MCQs (Applicable to All Positions)  :

10. Who is the current Secretary-General of the United Nations (2024)?
    A) António Guterres
    B) Ban Ki-moon
    C) Kofi Annan
    D) Amina J. Mohammed
    Answer: A) António Guterres
11. What is the capital of Australia?
    A) Sydney
    B) Melbourne
    C) Canberra
    D) Perth
    Answer: C) Canberra
12. Which planet is known as the Red Planet?
    A) Earth
    B) Mars
    C) Jupiter
    D) Venus
    Answer: B) Mars

Safety and First Aid Jobs Test MCQs:

13. What is the first step in CPR?
    A) Check the airway
    B) Begin chest compressions
    C) Check responsiveness
    D) Call for help
    Answer: C) Check responsiveness
14. Which of the following is a symptom of a heart attack?
    A) Severe chest pain
    B) Swollen ankles
    C) Cold and clammy skin
    D) Both A and C
    Answer: D) Both A and C
15. How should burns be treated initially?
    A) Apply ointment
    B) Run cold water over the burn
    C) Cover with a thick cloth
    D) Leave it untreated
    Answer: B) Run cold water over the burn 

Technical Skills Jobs Test MCQs for Junior Technicians:

16. What is the function of a fuse in an electrical circuit?
    A) To provide power
    B) To measure current
    C) To protect the circuit by breaking the connection in case of overcurrent
    D) To increase voltage
    Answer: C) To protect the circuit by breaking the connection in case of overcurrent
17. Which material is commonly used as a conductor in electrical wiring?
    A) Rubber
    B) Copper
    C) Plastic
    D) Wood
    Answer: B) Copper
18. Ohm’s law defines the relationship between which three electrical quantities?
    A) Voltage, resistance, and current
    B) Power, voltage, and current
    C) Current, power, and resistance
    D) Voltage, power, and resistance
    Answer: A) Voltage, resistance, and current

General knowledge MCQs solved questions with answers in PDF. World general knowledge (GK) multiple choice questions for 2024 PPSC FPSC NTS OTS ETEA jobs tests preparation.

General Knowledge Jobs Test MCQs PDF

Download general knowledge (GK) MCQs questions and answers in PDF.

• General Knowledge MCQs (PDF) 

Agriculture Officer Jobs MCQs Test with Answers

A mutation is a change in_________________?

A. Chromosome number

B. RNA
C. DNA
D. Chromosome structure

Which one of the following does not contain both DNA and RNA__________________?

A. Bacterium

B. Virus
C. Fungus
D. Algae

Common and easily available source of energy does not contain RNA__________________?

A. DNA
B. RNA
C. ATP
D. DNA/RNA 

The cell theory was propounded by____________________? 

A. Watson and Crick
B. Scheiiden and Schwann
C. Sarwin and Wallace
D. Morgan 

Liposome’s originated from____________________? 

A. Plastids
B. Ribosomes
C. Mitochondria
D. Leucoplasts 

Year 1900 was significant for geneticists due to__________________?

A. Discovery of gene
B. Principles of linkage
C. heredity theory
D. Rediscovery of Mendel’s

The geometrical device that helps in visnalizing all the possible combinations of male and female gametes known as____________________?

A. Punneu square
B. Morgan square
C. Mendel square
D. Bateson square 

All organism or cell having a chromosome number that is not an exact multiple of the monoploid or basic number is known as___________________?

A. Allopolyploid
B. Autopolyploid
C. Aneuploid
D. Euploid

Triticuin aestivuin is_________________? 

A. Triploid
B. Teuaplioid
C. Hexaploid
D. Oetaploid 

If diploid chromo me number in flowering plant is 8 then 4 chromosomes will be present in_________________? 

A. Endosperm cell
B. Leaf cells
C. Cotyledonary cell
D. Synergids 

When a cell with 40 chromosomes undergoes meiosis each of the four resulting cells has_____________________? 

A. 10 chromosomes
B. 20 chromosomes
C. 40 chromosomes

How many times mitotic divisions must occur in a cell of the root tip to form 256 cels___________________? 

A. 8
B. 32
C. 64
D. 120 

Meiosis is significant because___________________?

A. Produces identical cells
B. Restores original number of chromosomes
C. Occurs only in somatic
D. Doubling of DNA content in the cell

Ribosome’s are the centers of_____________________?

A. Fat synthesis
B. Starch synthesis
C. Protein synthesis
D. Anaerobic respiration

The parry of Cauliflower which is eaten is__________________? 

A. Flower
B. Fruit
C. Bud
D. Inflorescence 

Where would you look for active cell division in a plant _____________________?

A. Pith cells
B. Cortex cells
C. Internodes regions
D. Tips of stem & roots 

Red flower pea plant is crossed with the white flowered pea plant, F1 is red; with flower color is ______________________? 

A. Dominant
B. Recessive
C. Non-genetic
D. Unexpressive 

A healthy plant not selling seed may be due to____________________? 

A. Self incompatibility
B. Male sterility
C. Female sterility
D. All the above 

Rum is distilled from____________________? 

A. Unmalted potatoes
B. Fermented fruit juice
C. Unmalted cereals
D. Unrefined products of sugarcane

Edible part of orange is__________________? 

Staff Nurse Nursing Jobs MCQs with Answers

Question1 : Infectious mononucleosis is caused by which of the following?

1. Cytomegalovirus
2. Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus
3. Epstein-Barr virus
4. Herpes simplex virus

Question 2 : The nurse is caring for a client who is thought to have pernicious anemia. What signs and symptoms would the nurse expect in this person?

1. Easy bruising
2. Beefy-red tongue
3. Fine red rash on the extremities
4. Pruritus

Question 3 : The nurse is to administer an IM injection to a 6-month-old child. What is the most appropriate site to use?

1. Vastus lateralis
2. Dorsal gluteal
3. Ventral gluteal
4. Iliac crest

Question 4 : The nurse administers iron using the Z track technique. What is the primary reason for administering iron via Z track?

1. To prevent adverse reactions
2. To prevent staining of the skin
3. To improve the absorption rate
4. To increase the speed of onset of action

Question 5 : The nurse is to administer a tuberculin skin test. What is the correct procedure?

1. Give it subcutaneously in the inner aspect of the forearm.
2. Use a 21-gauge needle and administer in the forearm.
3. Give it at a 10-degree angle in the volar surface of the arm.
4. Administer it intradermally in the upper arm.

Question 6 : Isolation of a child with measles belongs to what level of prevention?

1. Primary
2. Secondary
3. Intermediate
4. Tertiary

Question 7 : Which immunization produces a permanent scar?

1. DPT
2. BCG
3. Measles vaccination
4. Hepatitis B vaccination

Question 8 : Which of the following diseases is airborne?

1. Viral conjunctivitis
2. Acute poliomyelitis
3. Diphtheria
4. Measles

Question 9 : The pathognomonic sign of measles is Koplik’s spot. You may see Koplik’s spot by inspecting the:

1. Nasal Mucosa
2. Buccal mucosa
3. Skin on the abdomen
4. Skin on the antecubital surface

Question 10 : Which of the following conditions can cause a hiatal hernia?

1. Increased intrathoracic pressure
2. Weakness of the esophageal muscle
3. Increased esophageal muscle pressure
4. Weakness of the diaphragmatic muscle 

ANSWERS:

Question 1 : 3. The Epstein-Barr virus is the causative organism for infectious mononucleosis.

Question 2 : 2. A beefy-red tongue is characteristic of pernicious anemia. Easy bruising would be seen
in a clotting disorder such as hemophilia, in leukemia, or in bone marrow depression. Pruritus is characteristic of Hodgkin’s disease. Pernicious anemia does not present a fine, red rash on the
extremities.

Question 3 : 1. Infants and small children do not have enough muscle in the gluteal area to use that site. The vastus lateralis is the appropriate site. The iliac crest is a site used for SC injections, not IM.

Question 4 : 2. Iron is black and stains the skin. The Z track method of pulling the skin to one side before
injecting the medications prevents staining of the skin. It also reduces pain from the medication. It
does not prevent adverse reactions, improve the absorption rate, or increase the speed of onset of
action.

Question 5 : 3 A tuberculin skin test is given intradermally in the volar surface of the forearm. This answer is the correct procedure.

Question 6 : 1 Primary : The purpose of isolating a client with a communicable disease is to protect those who are not sick (specific disease prevention)..

Question 7 : 2 BCG : BCG causes the formation of a superficial abscess, which begins 2 weeks after immunization. The abscess heals without treatment, with the formation of a permanent scar.

Question 8 : 4 Measles

• Viral conjunctivitis is transmitted by direct or indirect contact with discharges from infected eyes.
• Acute poliomyelitis is spread through the fecal-oral route and contact with throat secretions.
• Diphtheria is through direct and indirect contact with respiratory secretions.

Question 9 : 2 Buccal mucosa : Koplik’s spot may be seen on the mucosa of the mouth or the throat.

Question 10 : 4. Weakness of the diaphragmatic muscle

A hiatal hernia is caused by weakness of the diaphragmatic muscle and increased intra-abdominal—not intrathoracic—pressure. This weakness allows the stomach to slide into the esophagus. The esophageal supports weaken, but esophageal muscle weakness or increased esophageal muscle pressure isn’t a factor in hiatal hernia.