PPSC Ad No. 29/2024

HOUSING URBAN DEVELOPMENT & PUBLIC HEALTH ENGINEERING DEPARTMENT

PUNJAB HOUSING AND TOWN PLANNING AGENCY (PHATA)

Vacant Positions:

Assistant/ Head Clerk (BPS-16) = 06 Posts

On a contract basis for 03 years

Qualification: Bachelor’s Degree from a recognized university

PPSC Jobs MCQs Written Test Syllabus Paper:

One paper MCQ Type Written Test of 100 Marks and 90

minutes duration. The syllabus is as under:-

General Ability including (100%)

General Knowledge, Pakistan Studies, Current Affairs,

Islamic Studies (General Knowledge for Non-Muslim),

Geography, Basic Mathematics, English, Urdu,

Everyday Science and Basic Computer Studies.

Last Date of Application: 11 November 2024 

PPSC Advertisement No. 28/2024 Jobs Assistant Director Town Planning

Lahore Development Authority Lahore

Vacancy Positions:

• Assistant Director Town Planning (BS-17) = 35 Posts

Qualification:  B.Sc. in Town Planning from a recognized University.

Note:

i) A  B.Sc. in Town Planning is an equivalent qualification to B.Sc. City & Regional

Planning as per QEDC of the Administrative Department.

ii) Valid Permanent Registration with Pakistan Council of Architects and

Town Planners (PCATP) issued on or before the closing date is required.

Age Limit: Male: 21 to 28 + 05 = 33 Years Female: 21 to 28 + 08 = 36 Year

PPSC Jobs Test MCQs Written Test Syllabus Paper

One paper of MCQ type written test of 100 Marks and

90 minutes duration. The syllabus is as under:-

i) Qualification-related questions:- (80%)

ii) General ability including (20%)

General Knowledge, Pakistan Studies, Current Affairs, Geography, English, Basic Mathematics, Urdu, Everyday Science and Basic Computer Studies.

Top 25 Jobs Test MCQs for the post of Assistant Director Town Planning using previous question papers. Questions focus on major topics such as town planning, zoning rules, environmental impact studies, etc.,

1. Best described meaning of Town planning is:

A) A plan for high-rise construction

B) Planning of cities with sustainable growth

C) Planning rural areas only

D) Transportation system only

Answer: B

2. What is the overall goal of the Master Plan in urbanization?

A) Government fund distribution

B) Directions for the future land use and infrastructure development

C) Populace density control

D) Property tax rate introduction

Answer: B

3. Which one falls under land use planning?

A) Tourism planning

B) Zoning

C) Industrial planning

D) Fare in the public transportation

Answer: B

4. Which of the terms mentioned was an uncontrolled growth within an urban area?

A) Urban sprawl

B) Zoning

C) Sustainable development

D) Brownfield development

Answer: A

5. A zoning ordinance is:

A) A guideline for rural development

B) A rule controlling the use of land and buildings within a certain area

C) A strategy for building highways

D) A regulation for green space

Answer: B

6. What does FAR (Floor Area Ratio) represent in urban planning?

A) A building's height restrictions

 B) A building's floor area about the lot area on which it stands

 C) Building spacing

 D) Parking for new development

 Answer: B

7. What is "mixed-use development" within the context of urban planning?

 A) One building that is used solely for residential purposes

 B) An area of land that has residential, commercial, and industrial use

 C) An area of land used solely for industrial use

 D) A park and recreational facility

 Answer: B

8. EIA is done to achieve the following goal:

A) There is increased tax revenue from new projects

B) Determine the possible environmental impact of the proposed development

C) Verify zoning compliance

D) There is a creation of transport infrastructure

Answer: B

9. What is a brownfield site?

A) Developing area of rural region

B) A previously developed industrial or commercial area that could be contaminated

C) Green space

D) A zone for recovery from natural disasters

Answer: B

10. The term "greenbelt" refers to:

A) A very industrialized area

B) A greenbelt-a belt of open land surrounding a city

C) A low-income residential area

D) A highway network surrounding a city

Answer: B

11. GIS stands for what in municipal planning?

A) Geographic Information System

B) General Infrastructure Standards

C) Global Integration Strategy

D) Greenbelt Infrastructure Support

Answer: A

12. Which one of the following is most critical to sustainable town development?

A) Encouraging urbanization sprawl

B) Minimizing the environmental effects of new development

C) Preventing residential development

D) Encouraging automobile transportation, not public transportation

Answer: B

13. What is "gentrification"?

A) In cities, a low cost of housing

B) Relocation of low-income people due to urban renewal

C) Land use in industrial areas being altered to include residential communities

D) Villages expanding into cities

Answer: B

14. What is NOT a transportation plan goal in urban areas?

 A) Relieve traffic congestion

 B) Encourage car use

 C) Facilitate public transportation usage

 D) Promote walkability in the neighborhood

 Answer: B

15. What term describes the redevelopment of existing, abandoned industrial land and buildings in cities?

 A) Greenfield development

 B) Brownfield redevelopment

 C) Suburbanization

 D) Greenbelt development

 Answer: B

16. What is an Environmental Impact Assessment's greatest concern?

 A) Land ownership disputes

B) Measuring the environmental impact of development projects

C) Increased government revenue

D) Zoning Enforcement

Answer: B

17. Which of the following is a definition of urban infill?

A) Expansion of a city into unoccupied rural areas

B) Development on vacant or underutilized parcels within existing developed urban areas

C) Construction of a new industrial park outside city limits

D) Building of new highways

Answer: B

18. Which of the following describes a TOD?

A) High reliance on personal automobiles

B) Low-density residence

C) High land use intensity near public transportation stations

D) Industrial locations not located near residential environments

Answer: C

19. As a city design activity, what is an aspect of "urban renewal."

A) Urban expansion of peripheries

B) Renewal and revitalization of deteriorating and blighted areas

C) Establishment of new suburban places

D) Industrial site development

Answer: B

20. A zoning regulation limiting the height and floor area to preserve daylighting and air access is referred to as:

  A) FAR rules

  B) Setback regulations

  C) Zoning variance

  D) Building envelope

 Answer: D

21. What is TOD abbreviated for in planning?

  A) Transit-Oriented Development

  B) Tourism-Oriented Development

  C) Technology-Oriented Development

  D) Traffic Optimization Design

 Answer: A

22. What is meant by the term "walkability" in urban design?

  A) Quality and access to walking facilities and infrastructure

B) The spacing of buildings and roads

C) The car-based urban environment

D) The number of traffic lights in a neighborhood

Answer: A

23. Which of the following is a characteristic of smart growth in urban planning?

A) Urban sprawl

B) Low-density development

C) Mixed-use and efficient land use

D) Less public transportation

Answer: C

24. Which planning policy focuses on reducing car usage and promoting choice forms of transportation similar to biking and public transit?

A) Suburbanization

B) Transit-Oriented Development (TOD)

C) Gentrification

D) Zoning variance

Answer: B

25. What is the primary function of a zoning variance?

A) To allow a property to be used in a way not strictly in conformance with existing zoning laws

B) To change the tax rates for a given area

C)To define a territory for farming

D)For developing new transportation

Answer: A

PPSC Top 25 MCQs Past Papers that could be helpful in preparing for a test for a Mentor/ Social Need Officer in the Social Welfare and Bait ul Maal Department:

PPSC Top 25 MCQs Past Papers that may help for preparation of a test for Mentor/ Social Need Officer in the Social Welfare and Bait ul Maal Department:

General Knowledge and Current Affairs

What is Bait ul Maal primarily employed for?

A) For lending to industries

B) To uplift the poor

C) For road and infrastructure construction

D) Sports event

Answer: B

Which ministry is responsible for Social Welfare and Bait ul Maal Department?

A) Ministry of Finance

B) Ministry of Interior

C) Ministry of Human Rights

D) Ministry of Social Welfare

Answer: D

What is the purpose of a social welfare scheme?

A) To boost the GDP of the nation

B) To give medical facilities to the wealthy

C) To help the poor and weaker segments of society

D) To construct shopping malls

Answer: C

Which of the following is one of the routine services that the social welfare departments deliver?

A) Receiving income

B) Roads development

C) To accommodate the homeless people

D) Broadcasting program

Answer: C

In other words, social welfare focuses on:

A) Capitalism

B) Feudalism

C) Humanitarianism

D) Anarchism

Answer: C

Social Welfare and Ethics

 Of the below choices, which one lays most groundwork for values within social work?

A) Maximizing profit

B) Doing good

C) Self-interest

D) Competition

Answer: B

What do "social justice" words of the system of welfare really point towards?

A) Money equally shared among those people

B) Some people should be taken behind the criminal court to penalize

C) In all treatment, one feels to be good and on the fair side for the entire society

D) To construct political power for all of them

Answer: C

A mentor is a role in social welfare.

A) Child Marriage Restraint Act

B) Companies Ordinance

C) Trade and Commerce Act

D) National Highways Act

Answer: A

The Human Rights Act safeguards

A) Corporate rights

B) Equal rights and opportunities for all citizens

C) Economic monopolies

D) Development of sports activities

Answer: B

Protection Against Harassment of Women at Workplace Act was enacted to

A) Economic stability

B) Protect women from harassment and exploitation at their workplace

C) Implement tax reforms

D) Foster international tourism

Answer: B

In Pakistan's law, the institutions that protect the rights of orphaned children are:

A) Private corporations

B) Local police

C) Social welfare institutions like Bait ul Maal

D) International agencies

Answer: C

Which of the following is a social welfare policy in Pakistan?

A) Foreign direct investment schemes

B) National pension plans

C) Child labor protection laws

D) Export duties

Answer: C

Organisational and Administrative Skills

Social Need Officer must have;

A) Accounting expertise

B) Empathy and communication skills

C) Legal prosecution knowledge

D) Scientific research

Answer: B

What is it that makes for successful case management in social welfare?

A) Prominent advertising campaigns

B) Effective client evaluation and monitoring

C) Administration of cases in court

D) Maximization of profit

Answer: B

What will a Social Welfare Officer do with an indignant family?

A) Disingenuously ignore their complaints

B) Offer emergency relief and later attempt solutions to the longer term issue

C) Interested only in the processual formality of court cases

D) Direct them elsewhere for assistance

Answer: B

One fundamental requirement to build social policy is:

A) Channeling political needs

B) Community needs and social justice identification

C) Increase in corporate tax rate

D) International trade

Answer: B

A Social Welfare Officer should be very skilled in:

A) Scientific methodology

B) Relief funds and resources management

C) Military operations

D) Corporate takeovers

Answer: B

PPSC Advertisement No. 27/2024

Vacancy Positions:

• Mentor/ Social Need Officer for Persons with Disabilities only (BS-11) = 13 Posts 

Qualification:

i) Bachelor's Degree (Second division) from a University recognized by the Higher Education Commission; and

ii) Disability Certificate from the concerned District Assessment Board. 

Age Limit: 

Special Persons Male:

21 to 30 + 15 = 45 years

Special Persons Female:

21 to 30 + 15 = 45 years 

PPSC MCQs Written Test Syllabus Paper

One paper of MCQ type General Ability Written Test of 100 Marks of 90 minutes duration comprising questions relating to General Knowledge, Pakistan Studies, Current Affairs, Islamic Studies (General Knowledge for Non-Muslim candidates), Geography, Basic Mathematics, English, Urdu, Everyday Science and Basic Computer Studies.

Note:

Subject posts are not transferable in any district due to selection on domicile/district wise and category of disability.

Application Last Date: 24-10-2024.

PPSC Advertisement No. 26/2024

• Assistant Directors/ Senior Inspector  Punjab Environmental Protection Agency

Qualification: B.Sc. (Second division) in Environmental Engineering from a university recognized by the Higher Education Commission.

OR

BS (Second division) in Environmental Sciences Natural Resources Management or Water Resources Management from a university recognized by the Higher Education Commission.

Top MCQs Test Past Paper with answers for a test related to the positions of Assistant Directors and Senior Inspectors in the Punjab Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).

Q.1 The correct sequence of the 3R principle is:

A. Recycle, Reuse, Reduce

B. Reuse, Reduce, Recycle

C. Reduce, Reuse, Recycle

D. None of the above

Correct Solution : 3. Reduce, Reuse, Recycle

The 3R principle has been formulated by identifying three principles or concepts. These are, respectively, Reduce, Reuse, and Recycle. All these methods aptly apply to waste disposal and have to be taken so. None of these hurt the environment and are therefore usable for everyone.

Q.2 In which year does the amendment of the Forest Conservation Act occur as given below?

A. 1976

B. 1988

C.1980

D. 1971

Correct Option is: 2. 1988

The Forest Conservation Act was amended in the year 1988. The Forest Conservation Act was amended to design as well as protect the Reserve forests for the utilization of Government.

Q.3 Hepatitis A is an infection disease

A. Food contamination

B. Water-borne disease

C.\tAir-borne disease

D. Both (A.) and (B.)

Correct Option : 4. Both (A.) and (B.).

Generally, Hepatitis A is caused through the contamination of food as well as water. The contamination is usually through agricultural waste, urban sewage, chemical waste, etc.

Q.4 Mention the category that is the worst sufferer of destruction of environment :

A. Moderate class

B. Rich

C. Poor

D. All the above

Correct Option : 3. Bad

The worst category that suffers through the destruction of the environment is the poor. There are multiple reasons behind this such as scarcity of food resources, lack of fuel-wood, overcrowded urban regions, and more. These reasons also lead to a rise in risks of diseases among the poor individuals.

Q.5 Name the most common as well as naturally occurring disaster.

A. Earthquake

B. Flood

C. Tsunami

D. None of the above

Correct Answer : 2. Flood

Floods are one of the most recurrent as well as natural calamities in the country. The onset of flood occurs due to the disruptions that occur in the monsoon season in many parts of the country.

Q.6 How many Biodiversity hotspots are on earth?

34.

B. 30

C.35

D. 36

The right answer is 4. 36

There are 36 biodiversity hotspots in the World. The hotpots show the number of the endemic species that are present in a particular hotspot.

Q.7 State the name of the drug that is associated with the plant source of coffee or tea.

A. Camphor

B. Opium Poppy

C. Caffeine

D. Thorn Apple

Correct Answer : 3. Caffeine

This contains caffeine. Caffeine comprises different advantages which are associated with the enhancement of working capability of the brain, a better memory, etc.

Q.8 The day is being celebrated as World Environment Day.

A. June 5th

B. June 6th

C. June 8th

D. June 10th

Correct Answer 1. June 5th

World Environment Day is observed every year on 5 June. The central objective of organizing an environment day is to tell people to become aware and conserve the environment.

Q.9 Which factors are considered the causes of eutrophication?

A. Supplement nutrient availability

B. Using fertilizers excessively

C. A and B.

D. None of the above

Correct Answer : 3. Both (A) and (B)

The major causes of eutrophication result from an increment in the plant nutrients by using excess fertilizers. These fertilizers tend to increase the water vegetation underwater in aquatic ecological ecosystems. Moreover, this produces destruction of the natural environments that lie beneath it.

Q.10 If there were no ants on Earth, what would happen?

Destruction of life

Little influence

C. Termites Lower

D. None

Correct answer is 1. Damaging living things

Population of termites will grow by their existence. They dig an aerator in soil as the process of oxygen circulation inside. Water or Oxygen does reach the earth-based roots only because of its creation by ants. Termites themselves would make it difficult for life on this earth, if these would be free from such enemy.

Q.11 What activity is likely to draw down the water table?

Overgrazing

B. Human population growth

C.\tSoil erosion

D. Over-extraction of Groundwater

Hence, correct answer is 4 Over extraction of groundwater

Over extraction of ground water is defined as using tube wells to withdraw a large amount of water and thus lowers the water table. Also, this might create a dry environment as well. A water table refers to the region in between the surface of soil along with the rock sediments.

Q.12 Jowar as well as Bajra grows in regions having

A. High moisture content

B. Low moisture content

C. No moisture

D. None of the above

Correct Answer : 2. Low amount of moisture

Jawra and Bajra are harvested in regions where the moisture content is low.

Q.13 What is the cause of sky appearing blue?

A. There is water vapor

B. The air molecules scatter the sun's light

C. The blue light is consumed by the air

D. The blue light passes through the atmosphere

Correct Answer : 2 The sun's rays scatter because of the air molecules

A clear sky is generally blue in colour. The basic reason for this concept is that the molecules that exist in air tend to scatter blue light and not the red color light.

Q.14 What are the causes of soil pollution?

A. Acid rain

B. Ozone

C. Aerosol

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: 1. Acid rain

So, the pollution of soil is due to the presence of xenobiotics-manufactured chemical or other alterations in the natural soul environment.

Q.15 Why are radiations harmful?

A. Radiation causes skin cancer

B. Radiations cause anemia

C. Radiations change body tissues

D. Radiations are unstable

The correct answer is Radiations causes skin cancer

It is said to take place when a radioactive substance gives off particles that are likely to penetrate into the body of a human being and therefore cause damage.

Q.16 Identify the instrument that is used to measure temperature, pressure as well as humidity at numerous altitudes within the atmosphere.

A. Altimeter

B. Barograph

C. Radiosonde

D. Aneroid Barometer

Correct answer is: 3. Radiosonde

The radiosonde is a device that measures temperature, pressure, and humidity at several heights over the atmospheric body.

Q.17 Identify the sea that is also known as an oceanic desert.

A. Sargasso Sea

B. Red Sea

C. Sea of Japan

D. Arabian Sea

Correct Answer 1. Sargasso Sea

The Sargasso Sea is commonly referred to as an ocean desert. This is because the sea is calm and still, and there are seaweeds floating on its surface.

Q.18 Identify the following: gas that is required for sustaining the atmospheric temperature.

A. Oxygen B. Carbon Dioxide

C.Nitrogen D. None of the above Correct Option : 2. Carbon Dioxide Carbon dioxide is an important greenhouse gas that helps trap heat inside the atmosphere. There is always a considerable amount of carbon dioxide that maintains the temperature in the atmosphere. Q.19 Who coined the term 'ecosystem'? 1. Odum 2. Elton 3. Arthur G Tansley 4. Clements Correct Option: 3. Arthur G Tansley The term 'ecosystem' was first discovered person by Arthur G Tansley in the year of 1935. This is the form of biotic community that consists an organism and its certain surrounding physical atmosphere that tends to interact with each other. Q.20 All species of earth with each other and their associated environments collectively are known as : A. Biosphere B. Atmosphere C. Hydrosphere D. Lithosphere Biosphere Correct Answer : 1. Biosphere Biosphere can be described as the aggregation of microorganisms, plants as well as animals with their mutual interaction and their peculiar environment. Hence, each species on earth along with their respective environments forms collective Biosphere.

1. What is the primary role of an Assistant in the Punjab Police Department?

A) Managing police operations
B) Assisting in clerical tasks and administrative support
C) Enforcing traffic rules
D) Conducting investigations

Answer: B) Assisting in clerical tasks and administrative support

2. Which of the following skills is essential for an Assistant in the Punjab Police?

A) Coding
B) Typing and data entry
C) Driving
D) Interrogation

Answer: B) Typing and data entry

3. Assistants in the Punjab Police primarily report to which position?

A) Inspector General of Police
B) Police Constable
C) Office Superintendent
D) Head Clerk

Answer: C) Office Superintendent

4. Which software is commonly used for data management by assistants in the Punjab Police Department?

A) Photoshop
B) Microsoft Excel
C) Adobe Premiere
D) AutoCAD

Answer: B) Microsoft Excel

5. What is the minimum education requirement for an Assistant job in the Punjab Police Department?

A) Middle school
B) Matriculation
C) Bachelor’s degree
D) PhD

Answer: C) Bachelor’s degree

6. What is the probation period for an Assistant in the Punjab Police?

A) 6 months
B) 1 year
C) 2 years
D) 5 years

Answer: B) 1 year

7. Which department works closely with Assistants for personnel management in the Punjab Police?

A) Traffic department
B) HR department
C) Investigation department
D) Forensic department

Answer: B) HR department

8. Which of the following is a key responsibility of Assistants in the police department?

A) Preparing budgets
B) Maintaining office records
C) Patrolling streets
D) Investigating crimes

Answer: B) Maintaining office records

9. Assistants often need to prepare which type of documents?

A) Legal notices
B) Crime reports
C) Salary sheets
D) Investigation reports

Answer: C) Salary sheets

10. What type of filing system is most commonly used by Assistants?

A) Alphabetical
B) Numeric
C) Date-wise
D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

11. Assistants often help manage which aspect of police personnel?

A) Duty rosters
B) Criminal investigations
C) Law enforcement strategies
D) Public relations

Answer: A) Duty rosters

12. Which of the following characteristics is important for an Assistant in the Punjab Police?

A) Aggressiveness
B) Leadership
C) Attention to detail
D) Physical strength

Answer: C) Attention to detail

13. Assistants are required to have proficiency in which type of communication?

A) Verbal only
B) Written only
C) Both verbal and written
D) Neither

Answer: C) Both verbal and written

14. Assistants in the police department are responsible for:

A) Public speeches
B) Managing office correspondence
C) Supervising arrests
D) Performing physical fitness tests

Answer: B) Managing office correspondence

15. Which document do Assistants need to manage for police officers' transfers and postings?

A) FIR
B) Transfer orders
C) Arrest warrants
D) Search orders

Answer: B) Transfer orders

16. Time management is essential for Assistants because:

A) They handle confidential cases
B) They need to balance multiple tasks
C) They are in charge of investigations
D) They work shifts

Answer: B) They need to balance multiple tasks

17. The promotion of Assistants in the Punjab Police is based on:

A) Physical fitness
B) Educational qualifications
C) Seniority and performance
D) Political connections

Answer: C) Seniority and performance

18. Assistants may be required to work with which type of software for drafting official letters?

A) Photoshop
B) Microsoft Word
C) AutoCAD
D) CorelDRAW

Answer: B) Microsoft Word

19. How do Assistants contribute to the smooth running of police stations?

A) Managing police vehicles
B) Conducting patrols
C) Organizing and handling administrative tasks
D) Monitoring CCTV footage

Answer: C) Organizing and handling administrative tasks

20. What is the typical work environment of an Assistant in the Punjab Police?

A) Fieldwork
B) Office-based
C) Police stations only
D) Courthouse

Answer: B) Office-based

21. Which quality is most important when working with confidential police information?

A) Creativity
B) Physical strength
C) Trustworthiness
D) Assertiveness

Answer: C) Trustworthiness

22. Assistants in the Punjab Police are primarily responsible for managing:

A) Law enforcement
B) Administrative tasks
C) Crime scene investigations
D) Traffic control

Answer: B) Administrative tasks

23. When maintaining police records, which is a primary task for Assistants?

A) Investigating crimes
B) Filing documents correctly
C) Handling weapons
D) Training police recruits

Answer: B) Filing documents correctly

24. Which document type might an Assistant need to handle for court purposes?

A) Arrest warrants
B) Legal briefs
C) Case files
D) Evidence reports

Answer: C) Case files

25. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of Assistants in the Punjab Police?

A) Drafting memos
B) Managing IT systems
C) Assisting senior officers with administrative tasks
D) Handling arrest procedures

Answer: D) Handling arrest procedures

Assistant Punjab Police Department PPSC Jobs 2024 Syllabus MCQs Past Papers pdf (BPS-16) Assistant (On Regular Basis)

Vacancy Positions:

102-POSTS (Open Merit=77

Special Persons Quota=05

Minority Quota=02

Women Quota=18)

Qualification: Bachelor’s Degree (2nd division) from a University recognized by the Higher Education Commission.

Age:

Male:

18 to 25 + 05 = 30 Years

Female:

18 to 25 + 08 = 33 Years

PPSC Syllabus Paper:

One paper of MCQ type General Ability Written Test of 100 Marks of 90 minutes duration comprising questions relating to:

General Knowledge

Pakistan Studies

Current Affairs

Islamic Studies (General Knowledge for Non-Muslim candidates),

Geography

Basic Mathematics

English

Urdu

Everyday Science

Basic Computer Studies

Computer Science-based multiple-choice questions with PDF solutions. Multiple-choice questions on computer science and information technology (IT) for the 2024 PPSC FPSC KPPSC OTS NTS employment exam preparation.

Computer Multiple Choice Questions in PDF

Download the PDF with the MCQs and answers for computer science. 

Computer Science MCQs Papers Solved Download PDF

You can also Download Related MCQs PDF Papers:

English Mcqs for Preparation PPSC, FPSC, NTS, SPSC, KPPSC, and other test. here you will find English mcqs.

In their first debate, Kamala gets under Trump’s skin. Here “get under someone’s skin” means:

A. Irritate or upset someone
B. Do it with a lot of force and energy
C. To meet and spend time with someone
D. Say or do something that someone should not have

Take something with a pinch of salt”, means: 

A. Without wholly believing
B. Eat with some extra salt
C. Eat without salt
D. Believe something completely

Qureshi accuses prosecution of dilly-dallying. Here the word ‘dilly-dallying’ means: 

A. Wasting time by being indecisive
B. Becoming hasty in decision making
C. Not cooperating with council
D. Not respecting because of political interference

What is the meaning of the idiom “Spill the beans”? 

A. To make a mess
B. To reveal a secret
C. To tell a lie
D. To start a fight

Be quids in, means:

A. To be making a profit
B. To suffer loss
C. To be in a situation
D. To be a part of a group

The new TV series from the West Wing team is ready to roll. Here idiom ‘ready to roll’ means:

A. Near to be finished
B. Start to be ruined
C. Going to start soon
D. Ready to leave soon

Be pushing up the daisies, means: 

A. Live for a long time
B. To be dead
C. Try hard for success
D. Trying something irrelevant

Follow hot on the heels of, means: 

A. Happen very slowly
B. Happen very soon
C. Happen in hidden manner
D. Happen slow and secretly

I _________ to Islamabad with some friends last night. 

A. have gone
B. went
C. am gone
D. am going

She was sitting ________her mother.

A. Beside
B. Along
C. Across

D. None of These 

Electric Sub Inspector PPSC Jobs 2024 Written Test MCQs Syllabus Paper Apply Online Now 

PPSC Ad No. 24/2024

Vacancy Positions:

• Electric Sub Inspector (BS-14) = 07 Posts

Age Limit: Male: 18 to 25 + 05 = 30 Years Female: 18 to 25 + 08 = 33 Years

PLACE OF POSTING: Anywhere in Punjab

PPSC SYLLABUS FOR WRITTEN EXAMINATION

One paper of MCQ type written test of 100 Marks and 90 minutes duration. Syllabus is as under:- 

i) Qualification related questions:- (80%) 

ii) General ability including (20%) General Knowledge, Pakistan Studies, Current Affairs, Geography, English, Basic Mathematics, Urdu, Everyday Science and Computer Studies.

Everyday science MCQs solved questions with answers in PDF. Everyday general science multiple choice questions for 2024 PPSC FPSC NTS OTS jobs tests preparation.

Download Everyday Science Jobs Test MCQs PDF

Download everyday general science MCQs questions and answers in PDF.

Everyday Science MCQs (PDF) 

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PPSC Ad No. 23/2024

Punjab Police Department

Vacancy Positions:

• Assistant (BS-16) = 102 Posts

Qualification: Bachelor's Degree (2nd division) from a University recognized by the Higher Education Commission.

Age Limit: Male: 18 to 25 + 05 = 30 Years Female: 18 to 25 + 08 = 33 Years 

PPSC Written Test MCQs Syllabus Paper:

One paper of MCQ type General Ability Written Test of 100 Marks of 90 minutes duration comprising questions relating to General Knowledge, Pakistan Studies, Current Affairs, Islamic Studies (General Knowledge for Non-Muslim candidates), Geography, Basic Mathematics, English, Urdu, Everyday Science and Basic Computer Studies. 

Latest PPSC Advertisement No.23/2024

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• General Knowledge MCQs (PDF) 

Agriculture Officer Jobs MCQs Test with Answers

A mutation is a change in_________________?

A. Chromosome number

B. RNA
C. DNA
D. Chromosome structure

Which one of the following does not contain both DNA and RNA__________________?

A. Bacterium

B. Virus
C. Fungus
D. Algae

Common and easily available source of energy does not contain RNA__________________?

A. DNA
B. RNA
C. ATP
D. DNA/RNA 

The cell theory was propounded by____________________? 

A. Watson and Crick
B. Scheiiden and Schwann
C. Sarwin and Wallace
D. Morgan 

Liposome’s originated from____________________? 

A. Plastids
B. Ribosomes
C. Mitochondria
D. Leucoplasts 

Year 1900 was significant for geneticists due to__________________?

A. Discovery of gene
B. Principles of linkage
C. heredity theory
D. Rediscovery of Mendel’s

The geometrical device that helps in visnalizing all the possible combinations of male and female gametes known as____________________?

A. Punneu square
B. Morgan square
C. Mendel square
D. Bateson square 

All organism or cell having a chromosome number that is not an exact multiple of the monoploid or basic number is known as___________________?

A. Allopolyploid
B. Autopolyploid
C. Aneuploid
D. Euploid

Triticuin aestivuin is_________________? 

A. Triploid
B. Teuaplioid
C. Hexaploid
D. Oetaploid 

If diploid chromo me number in flowering plant is 8 then 4 chromosomes will be present in_________________? 

A. Endosperm cell
B. Leaf cells
C. Cotyledonary cell
D. Synergids 

When a cell with 40 chromosomes undergoes meiosis each of the four resulting cells has_____________________? 

A. 10 chromosomes
B. 20 chromosomes
C. 40 chromosomes

How many times mitotic divisions must occur in a cell of the root tip to form 256 cels___________________? 

A. 8
B. 32
C. 64
D. 120 

Meiosis is significant because___________________?

A. Produces identical cells
B. Restores original number of chromosomes
C. Occurs only in somatic
D. Doubling of DNA content in the cell

Ribosome’s are the centers of_____________________?

A. Fat synthesis
B. Starch synthesis
C. Protein synthesis
D. Anaerobic respiration

The parry of Cauliflower which is eaten is__________________? 

A. Flower
B. Fruit
C. Bud
D. Inflorescence 

Where would you look for active cell division in a plant _____________________?

A. Pith cells
B. Cortex cells
C. Internodes regions
D. Tips of stem & roots 

Red flower pea plant is crossed with the white flowered pea plant, F1 is red; with flower color is ______________________? 

A. Dominant
B. Recessive
C. Non-genetic
D. Unexpressive 

A healthy plant not selling seed may be due to____________________? 

A. Self incompatibility
B. Male sterility
C. Female sterility
D. All the above 

Rum is distilled from____________________? 

A. Unmalted potatoes
B. Fermented fruit juice
C. Unmalted cereals
D. Unrefined products of sugarcane

Edible part of orange is__________________? 

Staff Nurse Nursing Jobs MCQs with Answers

Question1 : Infectious mononucleosis is caused by which of the following?

1. Cytomegalovirus
2. Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus
3. Epstein-Barr virus
4. Herpes simplex virus

Question 2 : The nurse is caring for a client who is thought to have pernicious anemia. What signs and symptoms would the nurse expect in this person?

1. Easy bruising
2. Beefy-red tongue
3. Fine red rash on the extremities
4. Pruritus

Question 3 : The nurse is to administer an IM injection to a 6-month-old child. What is the most appropriate site to use?

1. Vastus lateralis
2. Dorsal gluteal
3. Ventral gluteal
4. Iliac crest

Question 4 : The nurse administers iron using the Z track technique. What is the primary reason for administering iron via Z track?

1. To prevent adverse reactions
2. To prevent staining of the skin
3. To improve the absorption rate
4. To increase the speed of onset of action

Question 5 : The nurse is to administer a tuberculin skin test. What is the correct procedure?

1. Give it subcutaneously in the inner aspect of the forearm.
2. Use a 21-gauge needle and administer in the forearm.
3. Give it at a 10-degree angle in the volar surface of the arm.
4. Administer it intradermally in the upper arm.

Question 6 : Isolation of a child with measles belongs to what level of prevention?

1. Primary
2. Secondary
3. Intermediate
4. Tertiary

Question 7 : Which immunization produces a permanent scar?

1. DPT
2. BCG
3. Measles vaccination
4. Hepatitis B vaccination

Question 8 : Which of the following diseases is airborne?

1. Viral conjunctivitis
2. Acute poliomyelitis
3. Diphtheria
4. Measles

Question 9 : The pathognomonic sign of measles is Koplik’s spot. You may see Koplik’s spot by inspecting the:

1. Nasal Mucosa
2. Buccal mucosa
3. Skin on the abdomen
4. Skin on the antecubital surface

Question 10 : Which of the following conditions can cause a hiatal hernia?

1. Increased intrathoracic pressure
2. Weakness of the esophageal muscle
3. Increased esophageal muscle pressure
4. Weakness of the diaphragmatic muscle 

ANSWERS:

Question 1 : 3. The Epstein-Barr virus is the causative organism for infectious mononucleosis.

Question 2 : 2. A beefy-red tongue is characteristic of pernicious anemia. Easy bruising would be seen
in a clotting disorder such as hemophilia, in leukemia, or in bone marrow depression. Pruritus is characteristic of Hodgkin’s disease. Pernicious anemia does not present a fine, red rash on the
extremities.

Question 3 : 1. Infants and small children do not have enough muscle in the gluteal area to use that site. The vastus lateralis is the appropriate site. The iliac crest is a site used for SC injections, not IM.

Question 4 : 2. Iron is black and stains the skin. The Z track method of pulling the skin to one side before
injecting the medications prevents staining of the skin. It also reduces pain from the medication. It
does not prevent adverse reactions, improve the absorption rate, or increase the speed of onset of
action.

Question 5 : 3 A tuberculin skin test is given intradermally in the volar surface of the forearm. This answer is the correct procedure.

Question 6 : 1 Primary : The purpose of isolating a client with a communicable disease is to protect those who are not sick (specific disease prevention)..

Question 7 : 2 BCG : BCG causes the formation of a superficial abscess, which begins 2 weeks after immunization. The abscess heals without treatment, with the formation of a permanent scar.

Question 8 : 4 Measles

• Viral conjunctivitis is transmitted by direct or indirect contact with discharges from infected eyes.
• Acute poliomyelitis is spread through the fecal-oral route and contact with throat secretions.
• Diphtheria is through direct and indirect contact with respiratory secretions.

Question 9 : 2 Buccal mucosa : Koplik’s spot may be seen on the mucosa of the mouth or the throat.

Question 10 : 4. Weakness of the diaphragmatic muscle

A hiatal hernia is caused by weakness of the diaphragmatic muscle and increased intra-abdominal—not intrathoracic—pressure. This weakness allows the stomach to slide into the esophagus. The esophageal supports weaken, but esophageal muscle weakness or increased esophageal muscle pressure isn’t a factor in hiatal hernia.